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Post by Vladik on Sept 7, 2005 21:02:24 GMT -5
Yes, I suppose you're right... Who won the argument? And I believe that the two numbers ARE equal, in the traditional sense. Another question (actually the same question, disguised...) is 1/infinity equal to zero? I think so!
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Post by bfr on Sept 8, 2005 16:17:22 GMT -5
Well, there are two ways of thinking of it. Your way of thinking of it is like that 1 there is such a small chance something happenning if the probability of it is 1/Infinity that it must be zero.
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Post by Vladik on Sept 8, 2005 17:04:08 GMT -5
No, what does this have to do with probability? Anyways, sigma [x->infinity] 1/x is equal to zero.
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